Biology CET Exam Question Paper-2015

2015 Karnataka Biology CET Exam Question Paper For Medical and Engineer Courses
1. In 125 amino acid sequence if the codon for 25th amino acid is mutated to UAA, then
(1) a polypeptide of 24 amino acids is formed.
(2) a polypeptide of 124 amino acids is formed.
(3) No polypeptides are formed.
4) a polypeptide of 25 amino acids is formed.
2. Three copies of chromosome - 21 in a child with Down’s syndrome have been analysed using molecular biology technology to detect any possible DNA polymorphism with reference to different alleles located on chromosome - 21. Results showed that out of 3 copies 2 of the chromosomes of the child contain the same alleles as one of the mother’s alleles. Based on this when did the non-disjunction event most likely occur ?
(1) Paternal meiosis –1
(2) Maternal meiosis -1
(3) Paternal meiosis - II .
(4) Maternal meiosis - II
3. Which of the following is not correct with respect to malaria ?
(1) RBC’s rupture and release haemozoin which causes chills.
(2) Sporozoites multiply in blood. ’
(3) Female anopheles mosquito is the vector.
(4) Malignant malaria is caused by Plasmodium falciparum.
4. Ernest chain and Howard Florey’s contribution was
(1) Establishing the potential of penicillin as an effective antibiotic
(2) Discovery of Streptokinase
(3) Production of genetically engineered insulin
(4) Discovery of DNA sequence
5. Choose the correct combination of labelling the molecules involved in the pathway of anaerobic respiration in Yeast.
(1) A - Acetaldehyde, B - C02, C - Ethanol
(2) A - Ethanol, B- C02, C - Acetaldehyde
(3) A - Ethanol, B - Acetaldehyde, C - C02
(4) A - C02, B - Ethanol, C - Acetaldehyde
6. The breakdown of detritus into small particles by detrivores is called
(1) Leaching
(2) Humification
(3) Fragmentation .
(4) Catabolism
7. The formation of two species from one ancestral species is known as
(1) convergent evolution
(2) phyletic evolution
(3) alloparty
(4) divergent evolution
8. A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industrial plant removes
(1) Gases like ozone or methane
(2) Gases like Sulphur dioxide *
(3) Gases like Nitrous oxide
(4) Particulate matter of the size 5 micrometers or above
9. With respect to DNA fragmentation
Statement A : Gel electrophoresis and elution are two important processes.
Statement B : After staining with ethidium bromide it has to be exposed to U.V. light.
(1) Only A is correct.
(2) Both A and B are correct statements. *
(3) Only B is correct.
(4) Only A is correct and B is not correct.
10. The pioneer species in Xerarch and Hydrarch succession are respectively
(1) Lichens and phytoplanktons
(2) Lichens and sedges
(3) Phytoplanktons and lichens
(4) Lichens and rooted hydrophytes
11. Hibernating animals have tissues containing mitochondria with a membrane protein that accelerates electron transport while blocking the synthesis of ATP. What is the consequence of this ?
(1) Hibernating animals can synthesize fat instead of wasting energy of respiration.
(2) Energy is saved because glycolysis and the citric acid cycle shuts down.*
(3) Pyruvate is converted to lactic acid by anaerobic fermentation.
(4) The energy of respiration is converted into heat.
12. Which of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the sex in the given example ?
(1) Homozygous sex chromosome XX produce male in Drosophila.
(2) XO type of sex determines male sex in grasshopper.
(3) Homozygous sex chromosome ZZ determine female sex in birds.
(4) XO condition in humans as found in Klinefelter’s syndrome determines female sex.
13. Natural killer lymphocytes are an example for
(1) Physical barrier
(2) Cytokine barrier '
(3) Cellular barrier
(4) Physiological barrier
14. The codon AUG has dual function. It is an initiation codon and also codes for
(1) Phenylalanine .
(2) Formaldehyde
(3) Serine
(4) Methionine
15. Identify the wrong statement.
(1) Alleles b and c also produce sugar. f
(2) Alleles IA and IB produce sugars.
(3) When IB and b or i are present only IB is expressed.
(4) Both IA and IB are present together and they express because of co-dominance.
16. Continued self pollination results in
(1) Formation of unisexual flowers
(2) Inbreeding depression *
(3) Gametes loose vigour
(4) Self incompatibility
17. Which vector can clone a small fragment of DNA ?
(1) Plasmid
(2) Bacterial artificial chromosome
(3) Cosmid
(4) Yeast artificial chromosome
18. Seeds without fertilization is obtained from
(1) Polyembryony
(2) Parthenocarpy
(3) Dormancy
(4) Apomixis
19. With respect to Eichormia :
Statement X : It drains off Oxygen from water and is seen growing in standing water.
Statement Y : It is an indigenous species of our country.
(1) Only statement X is correct and Y is wrong.
(2) Both statements X and Y are correct.
(3) Only statement Y is correct and X is wrong.
(4) Both statements X and Y are wrong.
20. Identify the phylum X :
(1) Hemichordata
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Ctenophora
21. During sewage treatment biogas produced includes
(1) Hydrogen sulphide, Nitrogen, Methane
(2) Methane, Oxygen, Hydrogen sulphide
(3) Methane, Hydrogen sulphide, Carbon dioxide
(4) Hydrogen sulphide, Methane, Sulphur oxide
22. The ancestors of modem day Frogs and Salamanders are
(1) Icthyophis
(2) Jawless fish
(3) Amphioxus
(4) Coelocanth
23. Hisardale is obtained by crossing
(1) Horse with Donkey
(2) Marino ewes with Bikaneri Rams
(3) Superior Bull with Superior Cow
(4) Bikaneri ewes with Marino Rams
24. The nitrogen base found only in DNA is also called
(1) Uracil
(2) 5-methyl uracil
(3) Guanine
(4) NH4Cl
25. The hormone which acts on Sertoli cells and stimulates the process of spermiogenesis is
(1) GnRH
(2) Androgen
(3) FSH
(4) LH
26. Which of the following sentences is correct ?
(1) In prokaryotes there are no membrane bound cell organelles. ‘
(2) Cells of all living organisms have a nucleus.
(3) Cells are formed de novo from abiotic materials.
(4) Both animal and plant cells have a well defined cell wall.
27. The element responsible for the ring structure of chlorophyll and maintenance of ribosome structure is
(1) Ca++
(2) Mg+
(3) S
(4) K+
28. One hormone hastens maturity period in juvenile conifers, a second hormone controls xylem differentiation, while the third increases the tolerance of plants to various stresses. They are respectively
(1) Gibberellin, Auxin, Cytokinin
(2) Auxin, Gibberellins, Cytokinin *
(3) Gibberellin, Auxin, ABA
(4) Auxin, Gibberellins, ABA
29. Which of the following is not an ex-situ conservation ?
(1) Cryopreservation
(2) Seed bank
(3) Biosphere reserves
(4) Botanical garden
30. If 30j of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available to Peacock as food in the following chain ?
Plant ----->Mice----> Snake ---->Peacock
(1) 0.3j
(2) 0.03j
(3) 0.0003j
(4) 0.003j
31. With respect to phenylketonuria identify which statement is not correct.
(1) It is a case of aneuploidy.
(2) It is an example of pleiotropy.
(3) Caused due to autosomal recessive trait.
(4) It is an error in metabolism.
32. In a human foetus the limbs and digits develop after
(1) 12 weeks
(2) First trimester
(3) 5th month
(4) 8 weeks
33. The 2000 year old seed excavated from King Herod’s palace at dead sea belong to
(1) Dendrocalamus strictus
(2) Lupine articus
(3) Phoenix dactylifera 
(4) Strobilanthus kunthiana
34. Label the correct parts of the Myosin monomer:
(1) A. Actin binding site B. Head
C. ATP binding site D. Cross arm
(2) A. Cross arm B. Actin binding site
C. Head D. ATP binding site
(3) A. ATP binding site B. Actin binding site
C. Head D. Cross arm
(4) A. Head B. Cross arm
C. Actin binding site D. ATP binding site *

35. Green house crops such as tomatoes and bell pepper produce higher yields. This is due to
(1) C02 enriched atmosphere leads to higher yields.
(2) C02 is a limiting factor to photosynthesis.
(3) Due to diffused light in green house. ‘
(4) Tomatoes and bell pepper are not C3 plants.
36. The organism which completely lack a cell wall and can live without oxygen are
(1) Mycoplasmas 
(2) Archaebacteria
(3) Methanogens
(4) Thermoacidophiles
37. RNA polymerase-I transcribes eukaryotic ribosome which does not consist of
(1) 5.8 SrRNA
(2) 28 SrRNA
(3) 18 SrRNA
(4) 5 SrRNA
38. Match the following :
A. VNTR P- Largest gene
B. Introns and Exons q- DNA fingerprinting
C. Dystrophin r. Bulk DNA
D. Satellite DNA s. Splicing
(1) A-r, B-s, C-p,D-q
(2) A - q, B - s, C - p, D - r
(3) A - q, B - p, C - s, D - r
(4) A - s, B - p, C - q, D – r
39. Smack and Crack are produced from
(1) Cannabis sativa and Papaver somniferum
(2) Cannabis sativa and Atropa belladonna
(3) Erythroxylon coca and Atropa belladonna
(4) Papaver somniferum and Erythroxylon coca
40. Double lines in pedigree analysis show
(1) Unaffected offspring
(2) Sex unspecified
(3) Normal mating
(4) Consanguineous marriage
41. Progestasert is an IUD which makes the uterus unsuitable and cervix hostile to the sperms as they are
(1) Hormone releasing IUDs
(2) Copper releasing IUDs
(3) Ideal contraceptive
(4) Non-medicated IUDs
42. The chromosome number in meiocyte is 34. The organism could be
(1) Ophioglossum
(2) Dog
(3) Onion
(4) Apple
43. A fall in glomerular filtration rate activates
(1) adrenal medulla to release adrenaline
(2) juxta glomerular cells to release rennin
(3) posterior pituitary to release vasopressin
(4) adrenal cortex to release aldosterone
44. In a 3.2 Kbp long piece of DNA, 820 adenine bases were found. What would be the number of cytosine bases ?
(1) 780
(2) 1560 '
(3) 740
(4) 1480
45. Assisted Reproductive Technology does not include
(1) Zygote extra fallopian transfer *
(2) In vitro fertilization and embryo transfer
(3) Artificial insemination
(4) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
46. During menstrual cycle the cyclical changes takes place in
(1) Perimetrium
(2) Endometrium
(3) Corpus luteum
(4) Myometrium
47. BOD refers to
(1) The oxygen required for bacteria to grow in 1 liter of effluent.
(2) The amount of oxygen consumed if all the organic matter in 1000 ml of water were oxidized by bacteria.
(3) The amount of oxygen released if all the organic matter in 1000 ml of water were oxidized by bacteria.
(4) The amount of oxygen released when all the organic matter was consumed by bacteria in 1 litre of water.
48. Sonalika and Kalyan Sona are high yielding varieties of
(1) Sugarcane
(2) Rice
(3) Wheat
(4) Maize
49. According to Robert Constanza, 50% of the total cost for ecosystem services goes to
(1) Nutrient cycling
(2) Recreation
(3) Soil formation
(4) Climate regulation
50. Choose the correct statement:
(1) Oxygen is vital in respiration for removal of Hydrogen. *
(2) Pyruvate is formed in the mitochondrial matrix.
(3) There is complete breakdown of glucose in fermentation.
(4) During the conversion of Succinyl CoA to Succinic acid a molecule of ATP is synthesized.
51. Given below is the representation of the extent of global diversity of vertebrates. What groups does the portions represent ?
(1) Birds Reptiles Fishes Mammals Amphibians
(2) Mammals Birds Fishes Amphibians Reptiles
(3) Fishes Amphibians Mammals Birds Reptiles
(4) Fishes Mammals Birds Reptiles Amphibians
52. Select the mismatch pair from the following :
(1) Oxytocin - Contraction of uterine muscles
(2) Insulin - Gluconeogenesis
(3) Prolactin - Milk production in mammary glands
(4) Glucagon - Glycogenolysis

53. Which of the following would most likely help to slow down the greenhouse effect ?
(1) Converting tropical forests into grazing land for cattle.
(2) Ensuring that all excess paper packaging is burned to ashes.
(3) Redesigning land fill dumps to allow methane to be collected.
(4) Promoting the use of private rather than public transport
54. If an inheritable mutation is observed in a population at high frequency, it is referred to as
(1) Sequence annotation
(2) DNA polymorphism
(3) Linkage
(4) Expressed sequence Tag
55.  Find the wrongly matched pair:
(1) Lungs of the planet – Amazon rain forest
(2) Endemism – Species confined to one region and also found in other regions
(3) Hot spots – Regions with species richness
(4) Alien species – Clarias gariepinus
56. The function of a selectable marker is
(1) Eliminating transformants and permitting non-transformants.
(2) Identify ori site.
(3) Elimination of non-transformants and permitting transformants.
(4) To destroy recognition sites
57. The T-wave in an ECG represents
(1) Depolarisation of ventricles
(2) Electrical excitation of atria
(3) Beginning of systole
(4) Return of the ventricles from excited state
58. In prokaryotes the Glycocalyx when it is thick is called
(1) Capsule
(2) Slime layer
(3) Cell wall
(4) Mesosome
59. Which of the following is not correct in mass flow hypothesis ?
(1) As hydrostatic pressure in the phloem sieve tube increases pressure flow stops and sap is accumulated in phloem.
(2) The sugar is moved bidirectionally.
(3) The sugar which is transported is sucrose. "
(4) Loading of the phloem sets up a water potential gradient that facilitates the mass movement in the phloem.
60. Identify this structure :
(1) Adynylic Acid
(2) Uracil
(3) Cholesterol
(4) Adenosine