Physics CET Exam Question Paper-2015

2015 Karnataka Physics CET Exam Question Paper For Medical and Engineer Courses
1. A radioactive decay can form an isotope of the original nucleus with the emission of particles
(1) one α and one β
(2) one α and four β
(3) four α and one β
(4) one α and two β
2. The half life of a radioactive substance is 20 minutes. The    time taken between 50 % decay and 87.5 % decay  of the substance will be
(1) 25 minutes
(2) 30 minutes
(3) 10 minutes
(4) 40 minutes
3. A nucleus at rest splits into two nuclear parts having radii in the ratio 1: 2, Their velocities are in the ratio.
(1) 4:1
(2) 8:1
(3) 2:1
(4) 6:1
4. What is the wavelength of light for the least energetic photon emitted in the Lyman series of the hydrogen spectrum, (take he = 1240 eV nm)
(1) 122 nm
(2) 82 nm
(3) 150 nm
(4) 102 nm
5. If an electron in hydrogen atom jumps from an orbit of level n = 3 to an orbit of level n = 2, the emitted radiation has a frequency (R = Rydberg constant, C = velocity of light)
(1) 8RC/9
(2) 3RC/27
(3) 5RC/36
(4) RC/25
6. The circuit has two oppositely connected ideal diodes in parallel. What is the current flowing in the circuit ?
image
(1) 2.31 A
(2) 1.71 A
(3) 1.33 A
(4) 2.0 A
7. Amplitude modulation has
(1) one earner with infinite frequencies
(2) one carrier with two side band frequencies
(3) one carrier with high frequency
(4) one carrier
8. An LED is constructed from a pn junction based on a certain semi-conducting material whose energy gap is 1.9 eV. Then the wavelength of the emitted light is
(1) 6.5 x 10-7 m
(2) 2.9 x 10-9 m
(3) 9.1 x 10-5 m
(4) 1.6 x 10-8 m
9. The waves used for line-of-sight (LOS) communication is
(1) sound waves
(2) ground waves
(3) sky waves
(4) space waves
10. The given truth table is for
image
(1) NAND gate
(2) AND gate
(3) NOR gate
(4) OR gate
11. The input characteristics of a transistor in CE mode is the graph obtained by plotting
(1) IB against Ic at constant VCE
(2) IB against VBE at constant VCE
(3) IB against Ic at constant VBE
(4) IB against VCE at constant VBE
12. A particle is projected with a velocity v so that its horizontal range twice the greatest height attained. The horizontal range is
(1)  4v2/8g
(2) v2/g
(3) v2/2g
(4) 2v2/3g
13. The velocity - time graph for two bodies A and B are shown. Then the acceleration of A  and B are in the ratio
image
(1) sin 25° to sin 50°
(2)  tan 25° to tan 40°
(3) cos 25° to cos 50°
(4) cos 25° to cos 50°
14. The ratio of the dimensions of Planck constant and that of moment of inertia has the dimensions of
(1) angular momentum 
(2) time
(3) velocity
(4) frequency
15. Moment of Inertia of a thin uniform rod rotating about the perpendicular axis passing through its centre is I. If the same rod is bent into a ring and its moment of inertia about its diameter is I', then the ratio I/I' is
(1) 2/3 π2
(2) 3/2 π2
(3) 5/3 π2
(4) 8/3 π2
16. If the mass of a body is M on the surface of the earth, the mass of the same body on the surface of the moon is
(1) 6 M 
(2) M/6
(3) Zero
(4) M
17. The ratio of angular speed of a second-hand to the hour-hand of a watch is
(1) 3600: 1
(2) 720: 1
(3) 72:1
(4) 60:1
18. The kinetic energy of a body of mass 4 kg and momentum 6 Ns will be
(1) 4.5 J
(2) 2.5 J
(3) 5.5 J
(4) 3.5 J
19. A stone of mass 0.05 kg is thrown vertically upwards. What is the direction and magnitude of net force on the stone during its upward motion ?
(1) 0.98 N vertically downwards
(2) 0.49 N vertically upwards
(3) 9.8 N vertically downwards
(4) 0.49 N vertically downwards
20. The ratio of kinetic energy to the potential energy of a particle executing SHM at a distance equal to half its amplitude, the distance being measured from its equilibrium position is
(1) 2:1
(2) 3:1
(3) 8:1
(4) 4: 1
21. 1 gram of ice is mixed with 1 gram of steam. At thermal equilibrium, the temperature of the mixture is
(1) 50°C
(2) 0°C
(1) 0°C
(3) 100°C
22. Water is heated from 0 °C to 10 °C, then its volume
(1) does not change
(2) decreases
(3) first decreases and then increases
(4) increases
23. The efficiency of a Carnot engine which operates between the two temperatures
T1 = 500 K and T2 = 300 K is
(1) 75%
(2) 50%
(3) 40%
(4) 25%
24. The ratio of hydraulic stress to the corresponding strain is known as
(1) Young’s modulus
(2) Compressibility
(3) Rigidity modulus
(4) Bulk modulus
25. The angle between the dipole moment and electric field at any point on the equatorial plane is
(1) 180°
(2) 0°
(3) 45°
(4) 90°
26. Pick out the statement which is incorrect.
(1) A negative test charge experiences a force opposite to the direction of the field.
(2) The tangent drawn to a line of force represents the direction of electric field.
(3) Field lines never intersect.
(4) The electric field lines forms closed loop.
27. Two spheres carrying charges + 6 μC and + 9 μC, separated by a distance d, experiences a force of repulsion F. When a charge of—3 μC is given to both the sphere and kept at the same distance as before, the new force of repulsion is
(1) F/3
(2) F
(3) F/9
(4) 3F
28. A stretched string is vibrating in the second overtone, then the number of nodes and antinodes between the ends of the string are respectively
(1) 3 and 4
(2) 4 and 3
(3) 2 and 3
(4) 3 and 2
29. When two tuning forks A and B are sounded together, 4 beats per second are heard. The frequency of the fork B is 384 Hz. When one of the prongs of the fork A is filed and sounded with B, the beat frequency increases, then the frequency of the fork A is
(1) 379 Hz
(2) 380 Hz
(3) 389 Hz
(4) 388 Hz
30. Three resistances 2Ω, 3Ω and 4Ω are connected in parallel. The ratio of currents passing through them when a potential difference is applied across its ends will be
(1) 5:4:3
(2) 6:3:2
(3) 4:3:2
(4) 6 : 4 : 3
31. Four identical cells of emf E and internal resistance r are to be connected in series. Suppose if one of the cell is connected wrongly, the equivalent emf and effective internal resistance of the combination is
(1) 2E and 4r
(2) 4Eand4r
(3) 2E and 2r
(4), 4E and 2r
32. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and then isolated. The effect of increasing the plate separation on charge, potential and capacitance respectively are
(1) constant, decreases, increases
(2) constant, decreases, decreases
(3) constant, increases, decreases
(4) increases, decreases, decreases
33. A spherical shell of radius 10 cm is carrying a charge q. If the electric potential at distances 5 cm, 10 cm and 15 cm from the centre of the spherical shell is V1, V2 and V3 respectively, then •
(1) V1 = V2>V3
(2) V1>V2>V3
(3) V1 = V2<V3
(4) V1 < V2< V3
34. Three point charges 3nC, 6nC and 9nC are placed at the comers of an equilateral triangle of side 0.1 m. The potential energy of the system is
(1) 9910 J
(2) 8910 J
(3) 99100 J
(4) 89100 J
35. In the circuit shown below, the ammeter and the voltmeter readings are 3 A and 6 V respectively. Then the value of the resistance R is
image
(1)  <2 Ω
(2) 2 Ω
(3) > 2 Ω
(4) > 2 Ω
36. Two cells of emf E1 and E2 are joined in opposition (such that E1 > E2). If r1 and r2 be the Internal resistance and R be the external resistance, then the terminal potential difference is
image
37. A proton beam enters a magnetic field of 10“ 4 Wb m-2 normally. If the specific charge of the proton is 1011 C kg-1 and its velocity is 109 ms-1, then the radius of the circle described will be
(1) 100 m
(2) 0.1 m
(3) 1 m
(4) 10 m
38. Two concentric coils each of radius equal to 2π cm are placed right angles to each other. If 3A and 4A are the currents flowing through the two coils respectively. The magnetic induction (in Wb m-2) at the centre of the coils will be
(1) 5 x 10-5
(2) 12x10-5
(3) 7 x 10-5
(4) 10-5
39. The resistance of the bulb filament is 100 Ω at a temperature of 100 °C. If its temperature co-efficient of resistance be 0.005 per °C, its resistance will become 200 Ω at a temperature
(1) 500 °C
(2) 300 °C
(3) 200 °C
(4) 400 °C
40. In Wheatstones network P = 2 Ω, Q = 2 Ω, R = 2 Ω and S — 3 Ω. The resistance with which S is to shunted in order that the bridge may be balanced is
(1) 4 Ω
(2) 1 Ω
(3) 6 Ω
(4) 2 Ω
41. Core of electromagnets are made of ferromagnetic material which has
(1) low permeability and high retentivity
(2) high permeability and low retentivity
(3) low permeability and low retentivity
(4) high permeability and high retentivity
42. If there is no torsion in the suspension thread, then the time period of a magnet executing SHM is
image
43. Two parallel wires 1 m apart carry currents of 1 A and 3 A respectively in opposite directions. The force per unit length acting between these two wires is
(1) 6 x 10-5 Nm_1 repulsive
(2) 6 x 10-7 Nm-1 repulsive
(3) 6 x 10-5 Nm-1 attractive
(4) 6 x 10-7 Nm-1 attractive
44. A galvanometer of resistance 50 Ω gives a full scale deflection for a current 5 x 10-4  A. The resistance that should be connected in series with the galvanometer to read 3 V is
(1) 5059 Ω
(2) 595 Ω
(3) 5950 Ω
(4) 5050 Ω
45. A cyclotron is used to accelerate
(1) only negatively charged particles
(2) neutron
(3) both positively and negatively charged particles
(4) only positively charged particles
46. A transformer is used to light 100 W — 110 V lamp from 220 V mains. If the main current is 0.5 A, the efficiency of the transformer is
(1) 96%
(2) 90%
(3) 99%
(4) 95%
47. In an LCR circuit, at resonance
(1) the current is minimum
(2) the current and voltage are in phase
(3) the current leads the voltage by π/2
(4) the impedance is maximum
48. An aircraft with a wingspan of 40 m flies with a speed of 1080 km/hr in the eastward direction at a constant altitude in the northern hemisphere, where the vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field 1.75 x 10-5 T. Then the emf developed between the tips of the wings is
(1) 0.21 V
(2) 0.5 V
(3) 2.1 V
(4) 0.34 V
49. Two coils have a mutual inductance 0.005 H. The current changes in the first coil according to the equation i = im  sin ωt where im = 10 A and ω = 100 π rad  s-1. The maximum value of the emf induced in the second coil is
(1) π
(2) 2 π
(3) 4 π
(4) 5 π
50. The magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic material at -73 °C is 0.0075 and its value at - 173 °C will be
(1) 0.015
(2) 0.0045
(3) 0.0075
(4) 0.0030
51. In a Young’s double slit experiment the slit separation is 0.5 m from the slits. For a monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm, the distance of 3rd maxima from 2nd minima on the other side is
(1)  22.5 mm
(2) 2.75 mm
(3) 2.25 mm
(4) 2.5 mm
52. Calculate the focal length of a reading glass of a person if his distance of distinct vision is 75 cm.
(1) 75.2 cm
(2) 25.6 cm
(3) 100.4 cm
(4) 37.5 cm
53. A person wants a real image of his own. 3 times enlarged. where should he stand in front of a concave mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm?
(1)  90 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 20 cm
(4) 30 cm
54. If εo and μo are the permittivity and permeability of free space and ε and μ are corresponding quantities for a medium, then refractive index of the medium is
image
55. The average power dissipated in a pure inductor is
(1) VI2/4 
(2) 1/2 VI
(3) zero
(4) VI2
56. An a-particle of energy 5 MeV is scattered through 180° by gold nucleus. The distance ot closest approach is of the order of
(1) 10-14 cm
(2) 10-10 cm
(3) 10-16 cm
(4) 10-12 cm
57. Find the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron with kinetic energy of 120 eV.
(1) 112 pm
(2) 95 pm
(3) 124 pm
(4) 102 pm
58. Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV respectively, successively illuminate a metallic surface whose work function is 0.5 eV. Ratio of maximum speeds of emitted electrons will be
(1) 1:2
(2) 1:5
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 1 :4
59. The polarizing angle of glass is 57°. A ray of light which is incident at this angle will have an angle of refraction as
(1) 43°
(2) 25°
(3) 38°
(4) 33°
60. To observe diffraction, the size of the obstacle
(1) should be much larger than the wavelength.
(2) has no relation to wavelength.
(3) should be of the order of wavelength.
(4) should be λ/2,where λ is the wavelength.