2015 KAS Prelims Examination Question Paper-1

1. The biggest network of canals known in India until 19th century was created by which of the following Sultans ?

(a) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

(b) Firuz Shah Tughlaq

(c) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq

(d) Allauddin Khilji

2. Amir Khusrau has been regarded as the greatest Persian poet of the period of Delhi Sultanate. Which among the following Works was not written by him ?

(a) Tarikh-i-Firuz Shahi

(b) Ashiqa

(c) Qiran-us-Sadain

(d) Mifrah-ul-Futuh

3. The town administration during the period of Satavahanas was in the hands of

(a) Nigama Sabha

(b) Agania Sabha

(c) Saniithi

(d) Vidatha

4. Which of the following battles were associated with Humayun ?

1. Battle of Kalinjar

2. Battle of Chunar

3. 2nd Battle of Panipat

4. Battle of Haldighati

Write the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 3 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

(d) I and 2

5. ‘Gagan Mahal’ is an Architectural Glory ascribed to

(a) Adil Shahis

(b) Qutub Shahis

(c) Nizam Shahis

(d) Barid Shahis

6. The provinces of the Vijayanagara Empire were called as

(a) Samstanas

(b) Rajyas

(c) Deshas

(d) Prantas

7. Which one of the following powers of the Prime Minister in relation to the Council of Ministers has been wrongly listed ?

(a) He can dismiss any Minister if he finds that the Minister is not cooperating with him.

(b) The members of the Council of Ministers are appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister.

(c) He allocates portfolios among the members of the Council of Ministers.

(d) He presides over the meetings of the Council of Ministers.

8. Name the basic wording of the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.

(a) Federal Secular, Democratic Republic

(b) Sovereign Secular, Democratic Republic

(c) Sovereign Socialist Secular, Democratic Republic

(d) Federal Socialist Secular, Democratic Republic

9. Which one of the following statements is correct ?

(a) The IAS is a mandarin-type Civil Service, comparable very broadly to the examination- recruitment of higher services in Britain, France or Japan.

(a) IAS officers are allotted to the Central Government and have no need to specialize in State language, Customs, Laws etc.

(b) The key administrative and police positions in the State Government are designated to only State Civil Service Officers.

(c) The existing Indian Administrative and Police Services were deemed to be Services created by the Constitution and have no supporting Parliamentary Act.

10. The National Commission for Women was set up as statutory body in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990 to

1. Review the constitutional and legal safeguards for women.

2. Recommend remedial legislative measures.

3. Facilitate redressal of grievances.

4. To take direct action against perpetrators of crimes against women.

Which of the above statements) is/are false ?

(a) 1,2 and 3

(a) Only 2

(b) Only 4

(c) All of the above

11. Which one of the following is a constitutional Principle for elections in India ?

(a) Election to Parliament and Legislature of States is based on proportional representation.

(b) The election is based on male adult suffrage.

(c) The power to make laws relating to all matters in connection with elections is only with Legislature of a State.

(d) No person shall be excluded from the electoral roll on the grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or any of them.

12. Consider the following statements:

1. The basic structure doctrine is defined in the Constitution.

2. There are certain basic features of the Constitution which cannot be altered in exercise of the power to amend under Article 368.

3. The Parliament can amend all provisions of the Constitution and judicial review shall not apply to such amendments

4. The basic features of the Constitution have been listed by the Supreme Court, exhaustively in the Golak Nath case law.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are true in the context of the Basic Structure Doctrine ?

(a) 2 and 4 only

(b) 1,2 and 3 only

(c) Only 2

(d) 1 and 4 only

13. Consider the following statements :

1. 'Habeas Corpus’ is in the nature of an order calling upon the person who has detained another to produce the latter before the Court.

2. 'Mandamus ’ literally means a command.

3. 'Certiorari' is issued to quash the order or decision of a lower court.

4. Quo Warranto' is issued to prohibit the lower court from making an ultra vires order or decision.

Which of the above definition of writs is/are correct ?

(a) 1,2 and 3

(b) 1.2 and 4

(a) 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 2

14. Which of the following is not a form of emergency recognized in our constitution ?

(a) Emergency due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion.

(b) Emergency due to failure of constitutional machinery in the States.

(c) Emergency due to natural calamity.

(d) Financial emergency.

15. Collective Socio-Economic objective of citizens of India are enshrined in

(a) Fundamental Rights

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy

(c) Fundamental Duties

(d) Preamble of Constitution

16. The Joint session of Parliament cannot be held in case of

(i) Budget Bill

(ii) Money Bill

(iii) Constitutional Amendment Bill

(iv) Ordinary Bill

Choose correct answer using Codes:

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(c) (ii) and (iii)

(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

17. Consider the following rights of citizens :

1. Right to free legal aid.

2. Right to equal pay for equal work.

3. Right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.

4. Right to decent standard of living.

Which of the above right/s are non-justiciable ?

(a) 1.2 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(c) I, 2 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

18. Some features of Indian Polity are not considered as conducive to federalism. Consider the few given below:

1. Absolute Presidential veto over State legislation in some cases.

2. Emergency Provisions.

3. Alteration in the boundaries of the states.

4. Every' power is subordinate to the constitution.

Select the features that is/are not conducive.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1,  2 and 3

19. In terms of princely hierarchy in colonial India, the status of Mysore was of a

(a) Thirty-one-gun salute state

(b) Twenty-one-gun salute state

(c) Nineteen-gun salute state

(d) Seventeen-gun salute state

20. Who auctioned salt at Belgaum and broke the Salt law in April. 1930?

(a) Karnad Sadashiva Rao

(b) R.R. Diwakar

(c) Hanumantha Rao Kaujalagi

(d) Gangadhar Rao Deshpande

21. Who recommends to the President the distribution between the Central and State Governments of the net proceeds of taxes collected by the centre ?

(a) Planning Commission

(b) Finance Commission

(c) Comptroller and Auditor- General of India

(d) Central Government

22. Mappila rebellion was related to

(a) Tribal discontent

(b) Nationalist discontent

(c) Soldiers discontent

(d) Peasant discontent

23. Which of the following places was selected for 'No-tax' campaign in Karnataka during the Civil Disobedience Movement ?

(a) Karwar

(b) Sirsi

(c) Siddapur

(d) Ankola

24. The land assessment system introduced in the Southern pan of British India wras the Ryotwari system. The reason was

(a) to improve the land revenue collection in British India.

(b) to improve the Indian economy.

(c) to get a hold over the land lords.

(d) to prevent the recurrence of famines

25. The Lahore session of Congress is an important landmark in the history of the Nationalist Movement in India because

(a) Congress at last adopted the creed of purna swaraj and tri colored flag.

(b) It bridges the gap between Congress and . Muslim league.

(c) It provided a common platform for Congress and Socialist Party.

(d) Congress accepted the position of Dominion status.

26. The Charter Act of 1813 was an important landmark in the history of company Raj because

(a) this Act asserted the Sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by company in India.

(b) this Act put an end to trading monopolies of the company.

(c) this Act allowed East India Company's monopoly over trade in India and China.

id) this Act invested the Board of Control with full power and authority over the company.

27. Match the following :

List-I List-2
A. Arid cycle 1. Batholiths
B. Volcanoes 2. Exfoliation
C. Limestone 3. Deflation Regions
D. Weathering 4.Polje
 

A

B

C

D

(a)

3

1

4

2

(b)

1

3

2

4

(c)

4

2

1

3

(d)

2

4

3

1

28. Who framed and suggested the “Plan of Balkan- to transfer power from England to India ?

(a) Clement Attlee

(b) Wave!!

(c) Churchill

(d) Mountbatten

Direction to the following two questions (Q. Nos. 29 & 30). Read the two statements Assertion (A) & Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the four choices (a), (b), (c) or (d) as given below :

(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A).

(c) (A) is correct,-but (R) is false.

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

29. Assertion (A): The Process of

energy conversion from Solar heat energy to Chemical energy is known as photosynthesis.

Reason (R) : Autotrophs use Solar energy to convert carbon dioxide and water to produce carbohydrates and finally other biochemical molecules to 'support life.

30. Assertion (A) : Ozone layer

protects the earth from excessive quantities of severely damaging Solar radiation.

Reason (R) : Ozone hole has been discovered over the Continent of Antarctica.

31. Major climatic characteristics of Savanna biome are:

1. This biome is found in the tropical wet climate of Africa and South America.

2. The mean monthly temperature is above 28 °C.

3. The normal rainfall is 50 cm to 100 cm.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

32. With reference to Mars which of the following statement(s) is/are True ?

1. Mars is also called Red planet, is a neighbor planet of the earth.

2. It has two Satellites called Deimos and Calisto.

3. It is the most explored planet by man in the Solar System other than the earth.

4. It is the smallest planet in the Solar System.

Select the correct answer using codes given below:

(a) Only 1

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 1,2 and 3

(d) All are correct

33. The correct order of the oceans in ascending order of their size is

(a) Indian - Pacific - Atlantic- Arctic.

(b) Arctic - Indian - Atlantic- Pacific.

(c) Arctic - Atlantic - Pacific • - Indian.

(d) Atlantic - Indian - Arctic- Pacific.

34. The great five lakes of USA - Canada - are marked as 1,2, 3, 4, 5 in the map - Identify them

(a)

1. Ontario

2. Erie

3. Superior

4. Huran

5. Michigan

(b)

I. Michigan

2. Huran

3. Superior

2. Erie

3. Ontario

(c)

I. Erie

2. Ontario

3. Huran

4. Superior

5. Michigan

(d)

I. Huran

2. Superior

3. Erie

4. Ontario

Michigan

35. A State in India has the following characteristics:

1. Its northern part is arid and semi-arid.

2. Its central part produces cotton.

3. Cultivation of cash crop is predominant over food crop.

Select the correct state.

(a) Telangana

(b) Gujarat

(c) Karnataka

(d) Rajasthan

36. Read the following statements regarding climate.

1. The climate has highest concentration of winter rainfall.

2. It is found in all the inhabited continents of the world.

3. It is found in the sub­tropics.

4. It is associated with the shifting of Global pressure belts.

The referred climate is

(a) Tropical and Temperate deserts.

(b) Tropical grass-lands

(c) China type of climate

(d) Mediterranean climate

37. Match the country with its principal coalfield and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Country           -    Principal Coalfield
A. USA             -  1. Shaanxi
B. China            -  2. Chicago
C. Great Britain - 3. Pittsburgh

D. Japan           -  4. South Wales

                        - 5. Honshu
 
Codes :

 

A

B

C

D

(a)

2

5

3

1

(b)

3

5

4

1

(c)

2

1

3

5

(d)

3

1

4

5

38. Which of the following cyclones did occur in India in 2014?

i. Hudhud

ii. Phailin

iii. Nilofar

iv. Lehar

Choose the correct answer :

(a) i and ii

(b) i and iii

(c) ii and iii

(d) iii and iv

39. The Canadian Pacific Railway. One of the longest railway lines of the world run from

(a) Vancouver to St. John's

(b) Seatle to Halifax

(c) Prince Rupert to St. John

(d) Vancouver to Halifax

40. Match the National Park with its State and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

State                             -  National Park

A. Meghalaya .              - 1. Hemis

B. Jharkhand                -  2. Namdapha

C. Arunachal Pradesh  - 3. Balphakrani

D. Jammu and Kashmir  - 4. Hazaribagh Kashmir

Codes :

 

A

B

C

D

(a)

2

1

4

2

(b)

3

4

2

1

(c)

3

1

4

2

(d)

2

4

1

3

41. The coastal plain of Karnataka is a wave-cut platform. With reference to the statement which of the following is correct:

(a) It is a result of volcanic activity.

(b) It is erosion plain.

(c) It is a depositional plain.

(d) All of the above.

42. Watershed development Programme is aimed for

1. Controlling of soil erosion.

2. Conservation of water and to maintain ground water.

3. Providing drinking water facility to the rural areas.

4. Controlling floods of the river during rainy days.

Choose the correct answer using codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3

(d) None of the above

43. An analysis of the railway map of Karnataka indicates

1. Kodagu is the only district of the State which has no railway line.

2. The only track which traverse the Malnad from east to west is Hassan- Mangalore.

Choose the correct answer:

(a) 1 is correct, but 2 is not correct.

(b) 2 is correct, but I is not correct.

(c) both 1 and 2 are not correct.

(d) 1 and 2 are correct.

44. Which place gets the lowest rainfall in Karnataka ?

(a) Kodugu

(b) Challakere

(c) Bidar

(d) Pullingoth

45. The Kalasa-Banduri water disputes refers to

(a) sharing of River Bhima water.

(b) . sharing of River Malaprabha water.

(c) sharing of River Mandovi water.

(d) sharing of River Bhadra water.

46. Match the following List-1 with List-11 and select the correct answer by using code given below:

List –1                 - List - II
A. Cauvety           - 1. Hidakal
B. Malaprabha     - 2. Gerusoppa
C. Sharavati         - 3. KRS
D. Ghataprabha    - 4. Navilateertha
Codes:

 

A

B

C

D

(a)

2

1

3

4

(b)

3

4

2

1

(c)

4

1

3

2

(d)

1

3

4

2

47. What is the correct ascending order of districts based on its geographical area ?

1. Kalburgi (Gulbarga)

2. Tumkur

3. Bel gaum

4. Vijayapura (Bijapur)

Select the correct answer:

(a) 2, 3, 4, 1

(b) 2, 3, 1,4

(c) 4, 1, 2,3

(d) 4, 2, 1, 3

48. Who is the largest buyer of the Indian cotton fabrics in the World today ?

(a) U.K.

(b) U.S.A.

(c) C.I.S.

(d) France

49. Cheerapunjee and Mawsynram villages receives high rainfall due to

(a) very high altitudinal location of these villages than any other part of India.

(b) proximity to the Bay of Bengal.

(c) influence of South West Monsoon and North East Monsoon Winds.

(d) rain bearing winds getting locked in the Khasi Hills.

50. Which of the following pair of cities are connected by the bus service between India and Pakistan ?

(a) Amritsar - Lahore

(b) Islamabad - Amritsar

(c) Islamabad - Delhi

(d) Lahore - Delhi

51. “Namma Mane”, the recently implemented house scheme in Karnataka is a

(a) Interest Subsidy Scheme for Housing the Urban Poor (ISHUP)

(b) Subsidy Scheme for House Less Rural Poor (SSHLRP)

(c) Houses for Rural Weaker Sections (HRWS)

(d) Rural Poor Subsidy Housing Facility (RPSHF)

52. The current account of the balance of payments comprises the

(a) balance of trade only

(b) net investment incomes and net transfers

(c) balance of trade, net investment incomes and net transfers

(d) net transfers and balance of trade

53. According to the report of the Standing Sub-Committee on “Assessment of Availability & Requirement of Water for Diverse uses - 2000", the estimated water demand in India for irrigation in 2025 is

(a) 618 Billion Cubic Meters

(b) 910 Billion Cubic Meters

(c) 1024 Billion Cubic Meters

(d) 2856 Billion Cubic Meters

54. According to the Government of India, the higher education policy has to be driven by three ‘E's:

(a) Education, Excellence and Economical.

(b) Expansion, Equity and Excellence.

(c) Equality, Empowerment and Expansion.

(d) Encourage, Effectiveness and Energy.

55. The increase in the volume of imports during the Third Five Year Plan, that is from 1961-1962 to 1965-1966 was due to

1. Rapid industrialization necessitated larger imports of machinery, equipment industrial raw materials, etc.

2. The defence needs increased following aggression by China and Pakistan.

3. Extensive crop failure in 1965-66 necessitated the import of a large quantity of food grains.

4. Imports are anti- inflationary because they reduce the scarcity of consumer goods.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) I, 2 and 3

(c) 3 only

(d) 4 only

56. Higher per capita income is inversely correlated with the proportion of active population engaged in

(a) Agriculture

(b) Industry

(c) Services

(d) Foreign trade

57. If NDP of India is greater than NNP. it means that

(a) The level of production in the private sector has increased.

(b) The level of production in the public sector has increased.

(c) The net earnings from abroad are positive.

(d) The net earnings from abroad are negative.

58. Birth rate in the country is measured as

(a) the number of Children born in the country.

(b) the number of children born as a percentage of total women in the country.

(c) the number of children born per 1000 eligible couple.

(d) the number of children born per 1000 population in the country.

59. The sub-division and fragmentation of land holdings in India are becoming more & more serious for reasons

1. The pressure of population on land.

2. The laws of inheritance and succession.

3. The breakup of the joint- family system.

4. The growing indebtedness of small & marginal farmers.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) I & 2

(c) 2 & 3

(d) 1,2,3 & 4

60. Which type of taxes help in reducing income disparities ?

(a) Neutral Taxes

(b) Proportionate Taxes

(c) Progressive Taxes

(d) Regressive Taxes

61. Based upon the Divisional Cumulative Deprivation Index (CDI), the High Power committee For Redressal of Regional Imbalances (HPC FRRI-2002) recommended the regional allocation of additional financial resources to reduce the development disparities as below :

(a) (Gulbarga) Kalaburgi Division = 20% + (Belgaum) Belagavi Division = 40% = 60% for North Region of the Karnataka and Bangalore Division - 15% + Mysore Division 25% = 40% for South Region of the Karnataka State.

(b)(Gulbarga) Kalaburgi Division = 40% + (Belgaum) Belagavi Division 20% = 60% for North Region of the Karnataka and Bangalore Division = 25% + Mysore Division 15% = 40% for South Region Karnataka State.
(c) (Gulbarga) Kalaburgi Division 25% + (Belgaum) Division = 15% = 40% for North Region of the Karnataka and Bengalore Division = 40% + Mysore Division 20% = 60% for South Region of the Karnataka State.

(d) (Gulbarga) Kalaburgi Division = 15% + (Belgaum) Belagavi Division = 25% = 40% for North Region of the Karnataka and Bengalore Division = 20% + Mysore Division 40% = 60% for South Region of the Karnataka State

62. The requirement of Industrial Licensing (Industrial Policy of 1991) has been abolished for all but 5 product categories, these are

(a) Alcohol, Cigarettes, hazardous chemicals, industrial explosives, electronic aerospace and defence equipment's of all types and agricultural products.

(b) Alcohol, Cigarettes, hazardous chemicals, industrial explosives and electronic aerospace and defense equipment's of all types.

(c) Alcohol, Cigarettes, hazardous chemicals, industrial explosives and defense equipment's.

(d) Cigarettes, hazardous chemicals, industrial explosives, electronic aerospace and defense equipment's.

63. During which of the following summit BRICS Development Bank was launched ?

(a) Russia

(b) South Africa

(c) China

(d) Brazil

64. Which one of the following statement is correct ?

The ‘Sen Measure' of poverty is said to measure the distribution of welfare rather than merely the distribution of wealth in a society because

(a) It identifies poverty in terms of minimum level of living.

(b) It measures the energy requirements of a household.

(c) It prescribes a Universal Standard of well being.

(d) It seeks to measure the income shortfall of each person below the poverty.

65. Which committee was set-up to suggest methodology for pricing of diesel and cooking fuel ?

(a) Kirit Parikh Committee

(b) Hanumantha Rao Committee

(c) Naresh Chandra Committee

(d) Athreya Committee

66. FTA signed by India with ASEAN in 2014 allows for the movement of manpower and investments in the areas of:

1. Finance

2. Civil Aviation

3. Health

4. Information Technology

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1,3 and 4

(c) 4 and 1

(d) 1,2,3 and 4

67. Which of the following two countries joined BIMSTEC in 2003-2004 ?

(a) Bangladesh and Maldives

(b) Maldives and Bhutan

(c) China and Nepal

(d) Nepal and Bhutan

68. Which round of multilateral trade negotiations included services and agriculture for the first time ?

(a) Doha round

(b) Uruguay round

(c) Bali round

(d) Seattle round

69. Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG) was introduced in which of the following Foreign Trade Policies :

(a) Foreign Trade Policy of 2014-19

(b) Foreign Trade Policy of 2004-09

(c) Foreign Trade Policy of 2009-14

(d) Foreign Trade Policy of 2008-09

70. In terms of percentage of the cumulative FDI equity inflows during the period from April 2000 to March 2014, what is the share of FD1 in the Indian Service Sector ?

(a) 45 percent

(b) 54 percent

(c) 65 percent

(d) 57 percent

71. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the process of economic integration between different countries ?

(a) Common Market - Free Trade Area - Custom Union - Economic Union.

(jb) Free Trade Area - Custom Union - Common Market - Economic Union.

(b) Free Trade Area - Common Market - Custom Union - Economic Union.

(c) Common Market - Free Trade Area - Economic Union - Custom Union.

72. Consider the following rural development programmes:

1. Food for Work Programme

2. Community Development Programme

3. TRYSEM

4. IRDP

The correct chronological sequence of the launching of these programmes by the Government is

(a) 1,2,3,4

(b) 2, 1,4,3

(c) 1,2,4,3

(d) 2, 1,3,4

73. In which of the following City, ship-building Industry is located ?

(a) Chennai

(b) Paradeep

(c) Mumbai

(d) Cochin

74. Government of India decides to decontrol petrol prices. Diesel, LPG, Kerosene prices. But what is decontrol ?

(a) Prices to be fixed by oil firms, not government.

(b) No more subsidy, but market-linked prices.

(c) Prices aligned to global crude prices and prices change periodically.

(d) All of the above.

75. When did India become member of WTO ?

(a) 1993

(b) 1995

(c) 1994

(d) 1992

76. Who of the following has been awarded the Jnanapith Award of the year 2014 ?

(a) Chandrashekhar Kambhar

(b) Batachandra Nemade

(c) Nirmal Verma

(d) Gurdial Singh

77. The recent mass uprising known as the ‘Arab Spring* first began in which of the following countries ?

(a) Egypt

(b) Libiya

(c) Syria

(d) Tunisia

78. Among the SAARC countries_____ has the highest per capita income

(a) India

(b) Pakistan

(c) Sri Lanka

(d) Bangladesh

79. Which of the following is WRONG about the “Bharatiya Mahila Bank* ?

(a) It Prioritises lending to women.

(b) It's the first specialised bank in the world, for women.

(c) Wholly owned by the Union Government.

(d) The board has all women directors..

80. Where was the second canal top 10 MW solar power project inaugurated by UN Secretary General Ban Ki Moon in 2014 ?

(a) Gujarat

(b) Karnataka

(c) Uttar Pradesh

(d) Maharashtra

81. Which is NOT true under the Prime Minister Jan Dhan Yojna ? The account holder

(a) Will be provided zero- balance bank account.

(b) Will be provided a debit card.

(c) Will be given Life Insurance cover of Rs 1 lakh.

(d) Will be given Accidental Insurance cover of Rs 1 lakh.

82. Which one of the following States has the country's highest alcohol consumption per capita in India ?

(a) Karnataka

(b) Kerala

(c) Tamil Nadu

(d) Telengana

83. Who has become the first woman to win the Prestigious fields Medal, widely viewed as the Nobel of Mathematics in August 2014 ?

(a) Maryam Mirakhani

(b) Mayam Laxmi

(c) Eimear McBride

(d) Nadine Gordimer

84. One of the following corporate giants recently announced to launch the Indian Language Internet Alliance (ILIA) to make available local language content on the internet. Which is it ?

(a) Yahoo

(b) Facebook

(c) IBM

(d) Google

85. Boko Haram is a terrorist group of

(a) Kenya

(b) Sudan

(c) Nigeria

(d) Uganda

86. Yeonpyeong Island is a source of dispute between which two countries ?

(a) Japan and China

(b) Japan and South Korea

(c) North Korea and South Korea

(d) North Korea and Russia

87. Which of the following country joins EURO ZONE in 2014?

(a) Greece

(b) Cyprus

(c) Ireland

(d) Latvia

88. What is the name of Innovation Council proposed in the Railway Budget - 2015 to promote Innovation ?

(a) Navachar

(b) Railtech

(c) Kayakalp

(d) Sankalp

89. The controversial “Kanhar Dam Project" is associated with

(a) Bihar

(b) Uttar Pradesh

(c) Uttarakhand

(d) Himachal Pradesh

90. Bring out the sequential order i. e. from highest number of mobile phone users to lowest of different Mobile services:

1. BSNL

2. Airtel

3. idea

4. Vodafone

Select the correct answer.

(a) 2,4,3, 1

(b) 2. 1,4,3

(c) 1.2, 4, 3

(d) 1,2,3,4

91. Match some of the Forbes top- 50 list of ‘Asia's Power Business Women 2015' with their organisation.

List-I                                  - List-II

A. Kiran Mazumdar Shaw    - 1. Axis Bank

B. Arundhati Bhattacharya  - 2. ICICI Bank

C. Chanda Kochhar             - 3. Biocon

D. Shikha Shamia               - 4. SBI

E. Lisha Sangwan               - 5. Shriram Life insurance

F. Akhila Srinivasan           - 6 LIC

Correct  answer is:

 

A

B

C

D

E

F

(a)

4

5

3

6

1

2

(b)

3

4

2

1

6

5

(c)

3

4

6

2

1

5

(d)

4

5

6

3

2

1

92. Kailash Satyatri and Mala Yousafzai. the Noble Peace Prize Winners for the year 2014 are belonging to the following countries respectively:

(a) Sri Lanka and Pakistan

(b) India and Pakistan

(c) India and Bangladesh

(d) India and Afghanistan

93. As per tiger estimation 2014. conducted by the Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate change, the state with the highest tiger population is

(a) Madhya Pradesh

(b) Uttarakhand

(c) Karnataka

(d) Tamil Nadu

94. The Social Forestry programme was introduced in India based on the recommendation of

(a) International Union for Conservation of Nature.

(b) International Silviculturist Conference, Dehradun.

(c) Report of the National Commission for Agriculture 1976.

(d) World Earth Summit, Rio 1992.

95. In which country recently in 2014 separatists lost independence vote in a referendum peacefully held ?

(a) Indonesia

(b) Bosnia

(c) Sudan

(d) United Kingdom

96. Which of the following Indus city has provided evidence for extensive water storage system ?

(a) Mohenjodaro

(b) Lothal

(c) Dholavira

(d) Kalibangan

97. Identify the features that distinguish Mahayana from Hinayana Buddhism from the following list:

1. Buddha statues

2. Stupas

3. Chaityas

4. Sanskrit texts

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below :

(a) 1.2,3 and 4 .

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 1,3 and 4

(d) 1 only

98. In Sangam literature, the fertile agricultural land was called

(a) Palai

(b) Marudani

(c) Mullai

(d) Neydal

99. Identify the features that distinguished the Gupta age from the earlier ages.

1. Urban decay

2. Gold coins

3. Decentralisation of power

4. Temple architecture

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below :

(a) 1,2 and 4

(b) 1,3 and 4

(c) 1,2 and 3

(d) 1,2,3 and 4

100. The struggle during the 9th and 10th century for the supremacy of the North India was fought between three following dynasties. Identify them:

1. Rajputs

2. Pratiharas

3. Palas

4. Rastrakutas

Select the correct statement(s) using the codes given below :

(a) 1,2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 3, 4 and 1

(d) 4, 1 and 2